/u/[deleted]'s posts in /r/AskHistorians
Regarding a recent legislative proposal in the US Senate that would entail a 60-day congressional review period of any US-Iranian agreements, is there any precedent for similar Congressional involvement in foreign agreements?
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How would European royalty have addressed one another when speaking in a language whose second-person pronouns had varying degrees of formality and plurality?
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is it possible “documented” evidence of Xia/Shang dynasties would have been destroyed by Qin Shi Huang?
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When did the Western European powers realize that their time as the most powerful countries in the world had ended and that they were going to be overtaken by the USA, USSR, etc.
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How different was life for the average middle class man prior to debt-fueled consumption of the 20th century?
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